Thursday, 10 December 2015
Sunday, 6 December 2015
INFECTION CONTROL IN DIALYSIS SETING
✅ Infection Control in Dialysis – MCQs (Set 1)
1. The most common cause of infection-related death in dialysis patients is:
A. Pneumonia
B. Sepsis from catheter-related bloodstream infection (CRBSI)
C. Peritonitis
D. Urinary tract infection
➡️ Answer: B. Sepsis from catheter-related bloodstream infection (CRBSI)
2. Hand hygiene should be performed:
A. Only before cannulating a fistula
B. Before and after any patient contact
C. Only after removing gloves
D. Only at the start and end of shift
➡️ Answer: B. Before and after any patient contact
3. Which of the following access types carries the highest infection risk?
A. AV fistula
B. AV graft
C. Tunneled catheter
D. Non-tunneled temporary catheter
➡️ Answer: D. Non-tunneled temporary catheter
4. Which solution is most appropriate for disinfecting a dialysis machine’s external surfaces between patients?
A. Normal saline
B. 0.9% Sodium hypochlorite
C. 70% Isopropyl alcohol
D. Hydrogen peroxide
➡️ Answer: C. 70% Isopropyl alcohol
5. What is the minimum contact time for alcohol-based hand rubs to be effective?
A. 10 seconds
B. 15 seconds
C. 20–30 seconds
D. 1 minute
➡️ Answer: C. 20–30 seconds
6. Gloves must be changed:
A. Only if visibly soiled
B. Between different patients or procedures
C. Every hour during dialysis
D. Only when moving from a dirty area to clean
➡️ Answer: B. Between different patients or procedures
7. Hepatitis B vaccination is recommended for:
A. Only dialysis nurses
B. All dialysis patients and staff
C. Only HBV-positive patients
D. Patients with AV grafts only
➡️ Answer: B. All dialysis patients and staff
8. Which practice is essential to prevent catheter-related infections?
A. Use of povidone-iodine ointment daily
B. Proper hub disinfection and aseptic dressing technique
C. Cover catheter with gauze only
D. Use of reusable gloves
➡️ Answer: B. Proper hub disinfection and aseptic dressing technique
9. Which statement is TRUE about isolation in the dialysis unit?
A. Hepatitis B patients require no special precautions
B. HIV-positive patients must be dialyzed in a separate room
C. Hepatitis B patients should be dialyzed using dedicated machines in isolation
D. All infected patients are dialyzed on the same machine
➡️ Answer: C. Hepatitis B patients should be dialyzed using dedicated machines in isolation
10. The “Clean” area in the dialysis unit refers to:
A. Patient waiting area
B. Area where medications and supplies are stored and prepared
C. The isolation room
D. Machine disinfection station
➡️ Answer: B. Area where medications and supplies are stored and prepared
11. The recommended personal protective equipment (PPE) during vascular access cannulation includes:
A. Gloves only
B. Gloves and gown
C. Gloves, gown, face shield/mask
D. No PPE is required
➡️ Answer: C. Gloves, gown, face shield/mask
12. Environmental surfaces in the dialysis unit should be disinfected at minimum:
A. Once a week
B. Daily after last session
C. After each patient treatment
D. Only if visibly dirty
➡️ Answer: C. After each patient treatment
13. According to CDC, patients with suspected or confirmed COVID-19 should be dialyzed:
A. First in the day
B. In open space with others
C. In a separate room or designated shift
D. No special precautions required
➡️ Answer: C. In a separate room or designated shift
14. When should the dialysis station chair be cleaned and disinfected?
A. Weekly
B. Only at end of the day
C. Between patients
D. Monthly
➡️ Answer: C. Between patients
15. Which practice can lead to cross-contamination between patients?
A. Wearing gloves for multiple procedures on same patient
B. Using same tourniquet without disinfection
C. Using clean gauze for each patient
D. Wearing mask during cannulation
➡️ Answer: B. Using same tourniquet without disinfection
16. Which of the following is an engineering control for infection prevention in dialysis units?
A. Alcohol hand rub
B. Isolation rooms
C. Use of gloves
D. Training on hygiene
➡️ Answer: B. Isolation rooms
17. Hepatitis C transmission in dialysis units most commonly occurs due to:
A. Airborne transmission
B. Infected water supply
C. Lapses in infection control like shared supplies
D. Dirty dialysis membrane
➡️ Answer: C. Lapses in infection control like shared supplies
18. Which step is essential before drawing blood samples from dialysis lines?
A. Just disconnect and draw
B. Flush with heparin
C. Disinfect ports for at least 15–30 seconds with alcohol
D. Use bare hands
➡️ Answer: C. Disinfect ports for at least 15–30 seconds with alcohol
19. In high-risk infection settings, reusable blood pressure cuffs should be:
A. Wiped with dry cloth
B. Used between patients without cleaning
C. Dedicated to one patient or disinfected between uses
D. Sprayed with perfume
➡️ Answer: C. Dedicated to one patient or disinfected between uses
20. After exposure to blood or body fluid in the dialysis unit, the staff should:
A. Wash with saline
B. Ignore if no wound
C. Immediately wash area with soap and water and report for follow-up
D. Wait until end of shift to report
➡️ Answer: C. Immediately wash area with soap and water and report for follow-up
Sunday, 14 September 2014
Indications for Dialysis (A.E.I.O.U)
FULL TEXT :CLICK HERE
FULL TEXT :CLICK HERE
✅ Indications for Dialysis (A.E.I.O.U.) – MCQs
1. The “A” in the AEIOU indications for dialysis stands for:
A. Acidosis
B. Anemia
C. Alkalosis
D. Ammonia overload
➡️ Answer: A. Acidosis
2. The “E” in AEIOU stands for:
A. Electrolyte loss
B. Electrolyte imbalance (e.g., hyperkalemia)
C. Edema
D. Elevated creatinine
➡️ Answer: B. Electrolyte imbalance (e.g., hyperkalemia)
3. Intractable metabolic acidosis (e.g., pH < 7.1) is an indication for dialysis because it can cause:
A. Increased oxygen saturation
B. Muscle gain
C. Cardiac arrhythmias and respiratory failure
D. Enhanced drug clearance
➡️ Answer: C. Cardiac arrhythmias and respiratory failure
4. Which condition under “I” in AEIOU is an indication for emergency dialysis?
A. Intestinal bleeding
B. Ingestion of toxins (e.g., lithium, ethylene glycol)
C. Irregular pulse
D. Irritable bowel
➡️ Answer: B. Ingestion of toxins (dialyzable substances)
5. Which electrolyte abnormality is an absolute indication for initiating dialysis?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Severe refractory hyperkalemia
➡️ Answer: D. Severe refractory hyperkalemia
6. Oliguria is defined as urine output less than:
A. 100 mL/day
B. 400 mL/day
C. 1000 mL/day
D. 1500 mL/day
➡️ Answer: B. 400 mL/day
7. The “U” in AEIOU stands for:
A. Urticaria
B. Uric acid rise
C. Uremia
D. Unstable creatinine
➡️ Answer: C. Uremia
8. Uremic complications that may indicate dialysis include all EXCEPT:
A. Pericarditis
B. Encephalopathy
C. Platelet dysfunction
D. Mild hypertension
➡️ Answer: D. Mild hypertension
9. A patient with severe uremia is likely to present with:
A. Elevated GFR
B. Improved appetite
C. Fatigue, confusion, pericardial rub
D. Bradycardia only
➡️ Answer: C. Fatigue, confusion, pericardial rub
10. Dialysis is most urgently indicated in which of the following situations?
A. Elevated creatinine only
B. Mild acidosis
C. Severe fluid overload with pulmonary edema unresponsive to diuretics
D. Stable potassium of 5.0 mmol/L
➡️ Answer: C. Severe fluid overload with pulmonary edema unresponsive to diuretics
11. Which of the following is the most life-threatening complication of severe hyperkalemia that dialysis can treat?
A. Nausea
B. Diarrhea
C. Cardiac arrhythmias
D. Muscle twitching
➡️ Answer: C. Cardiac arrhythmias
12. A patient presents with serum creatinine of 9.0 mg/dL but no symptoms. What is the next step?
A. Immediate dialysis
B. Monitor only symptoms and complications
C. Start antibiotics
D. Administer diuretics
➡️ Answer: B. Monitor only symptoms and complications
(Note: High creatinine alone isn’t an absolute indication for dialysis.)
13. Which of the following toxins is NOT typically removed effectively by dialysis?
A. Lithium
B. Ethylene glycol
C. Iron
D. Methanol
➡️ Answer: C. Iron
14. A patient with severe uremic encephalopathy may present with:
A. Seizures, confusion, asterixis
B. Hypotension only
C. Hyperactivity
D. Normal mental status
➡️ Answer: A. Seizures, confusion, asterixis
15. Which condition is a classic sign of volume overload needing dialysis?
A. Ascites
B. Pulmonary edema
C. Pedal edema alone
D. Elevated creatinine
➡️ Answer: B. Pulmonary edema
(Especially when unresponsive to diuretics.)
16. Dialysis should be initiated in acute kidney injury (AKI) when:
A. Creatinine exceeds 2.0 mg/dL
B. Urine output is normal
C. There is symptomatic uremia
D. Only when GFR is <5
➡️ Answer: C. There is symptomatic uremia
17. The “O” in AEIOU stands for:
A. Oliguria
B. Overload (volume/fluid overload)
C. Osmotic crisis
D. Onset of CKD
➡️ Answer: B. Overload (volume/fluid overload)
18. One of the earliest signs of uremia is:
A. Coma
B. Anemia
C. Uremic frost
D. Loss of appetite
➡️ Answer: D. Loss of appetite
19. A dialysis indication due to ingestion includes which of the following agents?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Digoxin
C. Methanol
D. Warfarin
➡️ Answer: C. Methanol
20. Which of the following statements is true about dialysis indications?
A. Creatinine level alone determines need for dialysis
B. Urine output must stop completely before starting dialysis
C. Dialysis is based on symptoms and biochemical derangements
D. GFR below 20 is always an emergency
➡️ Answer: C. Dialysis is based on symptoms and biochemical derangements
Monday, 19 May 2014
What Important Laboratory Tests Are Used To Monitor Dialysis Patients?
What Important Laboratory Tests Are Used To Monitor Dialysis Patients?
Full Text :Click here
Full Text :Click here
✅ Laboratory Tests for Dialysis Patients – MCQs (Set 1)
1. Which of the following tests is commonly used to monitor adequacy of dialysis?
A. Serum calcium
B. Hemoglobin
C. Kt/V
D. Serum creatinine
➡️ Answer: C. Kt/V
2. What is the target hemoglobin (Hb) level for most stable chronic hemodialysis patients according to KDOQI?
A. 8–9 g/dL
B. 9–10 g/dL
C. 10–11.5 g/dL
D. Above 13 g/dL
➡️ Answer: C. 10–11.5 g/dL
3. Which of the following is monitored monthly to assess anemia in dialysis patients?
A. Urea reduction ratio (URR)
B. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
C. Serum albumin
D. Hemoglobin (Hb)
➡️ Answer: D. Hemoglobin (Hb)
4. Serum phosphorus levels are usually checked in dialysis patients to monitor:
A. Bone mineral disease
B. Liver function
C. Anemia
D. Infections
➡️ Answer: A. Bone mineral disease
5. Which of the following laboratory values helps assess nutritional status in dialysis patients?
A. Serum potassium
B. Serum albumin
C. Serum creatinine
D. C-reactive protein
➡️ Answer: B. Serum albumin
6. Which test is used to evaluate the removal of small solutes like urea during dialysis?
A. Serum potassium
B. Kt/V or URR
C. Serum sodium
D. Hemoglobin
➡️ Answer: B. Kt/V or URR
7. Which of the following laboratory tests should be done at least quarterly in dialysis patients?
A. Iron studies
B. Blood cultures
C. Coagulation profile
D. Chest X-ray
➡️ Answer: A. Iron studies
8. High levels of PTH (parathyroid hormone) in dialysis patients may indicate:
A. Anemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
D. Fluid overload
➡️ Answer: C. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
9. Hyperkalemia in dialysis patients is most often monitored using which lab test?
A. Serum bicarbonate
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum glucose
➡️ Answer: B. Serum potassium
10. Transferrin saturation (TSAT) is used to assess:
A. Dialysis efficiency
B. Iron availability for erythropoiesis
C. Inflammation
D. Calcium balance
➡️ Answer: B. Iron availability for erythropoiesis
11. Which of the following lab tests is commonly elevated in chronic kidney disease and reflects nitrogen waste buildup?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Creatinine
C. Urea (BUN)
D. Bilirubin
➡️ Answer: C. Urea (BUN)
12. The goal serum ferritin level in hemodialysis patients is typically:
A. <100 ng/mL
B. 200–500 ng/mL
C. >800 ng/mL
D. >1000 ng/mL
➡️ Answer: B. 200–500 ng/mL
(according to KDIGO/KDOQI guidelines)
13. An increase in serum bicarbonate levels post-dialysis reflects improvement in:
A. Hypokalemia
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Anemia
D. Iron overload
➡️ Answer: B. Metabolic acidosis
14. Which of the following tests is used to monitor bone turnover in dialysis patients?
A. Serum phosphate
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum calcium
D. Intact PTH (iPTH)
➡️ Answer: D. Intact PTH (iPTH)
15. Monthly monitoring of serum potassium is important to:
A. Manage bone disease
B. Prevent arrhythmias
C. Detect infection
D. Control anemia
➡️ Answer: B. Prevent arrhythmias
16. What is the recommended frequency to check hemoglobin levels in stable dialysis patients?
A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Monthly
D. Yearly
➡️ Answer: C. Monthly
17. What does low serum albumin in a dialysis patient usually suggest?
A. Adequate nutrition
B. Iron overload
C. Inflammation or malnutrition
D. Fluid overload
➡️ Answer: C. Inflammation or malnutrition
18. A dialysis patient has consistently low TSAT and ferritin. This indicates:
A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Iron deficiency
C. Protein-energy wasting
D. Erythropoietin resistance
➡️ Answer: B. Iron deficiency
19. Which blood marker is helpful in evaluating chronic inflammation in dialysis patients?
A. Ferritin
B. C-reactive protein (CRP)
C. Serum creatinine
D. Phosphate
➡️ Answer: B. C-reactive protein (CRP)
20. Which laboratory value is most closely related to the risk of sudden cardiac death in dialysis patients?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Urea
C. Serum potassium
D. Albumin
➡️ Answer: C. Serum potassium
Interpretation Of Viral Testing In Dialysis Population
FULL TEXT: CLICK HERE
✅ Interpretation of Viral Testing in Dialysis Patients – MCQs (Set 1)
1. Which viral markers are routinely screened in dialysis patients?
A. HBsAg, Anti-HCV, Anti-HAV
B. HBsAg, Anti-HCV, HIV Ag/Ab
C. HBeAg, Anti-HBc, CMV IgG
D. Anti-HAV, Anti-HBs, EBV IgM
➡️ Answer: B. HBsAg, Anti-HCV, HIV Ag/Ab
2. A dialysis patient tests positive for HBsAg. What does this indicate?
A. Past hepatitis B infection
B. Immunity to HBV
C. Current HBV infection (carrier or active)
D. Recent HBV vaccination
➡️ Answer: C. Current HBV infection (carrier or active)
3. Which result indicates immunity due to vaccination against hepatitis B?
A. HBsAg positive
B. Anti-HBc IgG positive
C. Anti-HBs positive (>10 mIU/mL)
D. Anti-HCV positive
➡️ Answer: C. Anti-HBs positive (>10 mIU/mL)
4. A dialysis patient has Anti-HCV positive and HCV RNA undetectable. Interpretation?
A. Acute HCV infection
B. No exposure to HCV
C. Past HCV infection, resolved
D. Early infection not yet viremic
➡️ Answer: C. Past HCV infection, resolved
5. Which of the following markers is most definitive for detecting active Hepatitis C infection?
A. ALT/AST levels
B. Anti-HCV
C. HCV RNA PCR
D. HCV genotype
➡️ Answer: C. HCV RNA PCR
6. In dialysis, a patient with positive Anti-HBs and negative HBsAg & Anti-HBc likely indicates:
A. Recent infection
B. Immunity from past infection
C. Vaccine-induced immunity
D. Immunosuppression
➡️ Answer: C. Vaccine-induced immunity
7. When should HBsAg be tested in dialysis patients per CDC recommendations?
A. Every 2 weeks
B. Every month
C. Every 6 months
D. Monthly for new patients, then every 6 months if negative
➡️ Answer: D. Monthly for new patients, then every 6 months if negative
8. What should be done if a dialysis patient is newly diagnosed with active HBV (HBsAg+)?
A. No change in schedule
B. Isolate machine, cohort in HBV room
C. Repeat test in 1 month
D. Discontinue dialysis
➡️ Answer: B. Isolate machine, cohort in HBV room
9. HIV Ag/Ab combo tests in dialysis patients detect:
A. HIV antibodies only
B. HIV RNA
C. Both HIV p24 antigen and antibodies
D. HIV DNA
➡️ Answer: C. Both HIV p24 antigen and antibodies
10. Anti-HBc (core antibody) positive and HBsAg negative indicates:
A. Acute infection
B. Vaccinated only
C. Resolved HBV infection
D. No exposure
➡️ Answer: C. Resolved HBV infection
11. A dialysis patient is HBsAg negative but Anti-HBc positive and Anti-HBs negative. What is the most likely interpretation?
A. Immunity from vaccination
B. Window period of infection
C. Resolved HBV infection
D. False-positive Anti-HBc
➡️ Answer: B. Window period of infection (possible but needs HBV DNA testing to confirm)
12. A patient is Anti-HCV positive but has persistently normal ALT and AST. What should be done next?
A. Start treatment immediately
B. No action needed
C. Confirm with HCV RNA PCR
D. Test for HBsAg
➡️ Answer: C. Confirm with HCV RNA PCR
13. Which of the following hepatitis B markers would be expected to appear first in acute infection?
A. Anti-HBs
B. HBsAg
C. Anti-HBc IgG
D. HBeAg
➡️ Answer: B. HBsAg
14. In the dialysis unit, which of the following is a criterion to classify a patient as HBV immune?
A. HBsAg positive
B. Anti-HBs <10 mIU/mL
C. Anti-HBs ≥10 mIU/mL
D. HBeAg negative
➡️ Answer: C. Anti-HBs ≥10 mIU/mL
15. What is the CDC-recommended interval for HCV testing in dialysis patients?
A. Every 3 months
B. Every 6 months
C. Annually
D. Every 2 years
➡️ Answer: C. Annually
16. A dialysis staff member is accidentally exposed to a patient's blood. The patient is Anti-HCV positive. What is the next step?
A. Start antiviral treatment
B. Test the staff for HCV RNA
C. Wait for symptoms
D. Immediate HIV testing
➡️ Answer: B. Test the staff for HCV RNA (and baseline serology)
17. Which test confirms chronic HBV infection?
A. Anti-HBs ≥10 mIU/mL
B. HBsAg positive for more than 6 months
C. Anti-HBc IgM
D. ALT within normal limits
➡️ Answer: B. HBsAg positive for more than 6 months
18. Which hepatitis virus has the highest risk of transmission in the dialysis setting?
A. HAV
B. HCV
C. HBV
D. HEV
➡️ Answer: C. HBV
(due to higher viral load and environmental stability)
19. What is the appropriate action for a dialysis patient with reactive HIV antigen/antibody combo test?
A. Immediate isolation
B. Confirm with HIV-1 RNA or Western blot
C. Repeat the same test
D. Inform the patient directly without confirmation
➡️ Answer: B. Confirm with HIV-1 RNA or Western blot
20. The presence of Anti-HBc IgM in a dialysis patient suggests:
A. Past infection
B. Chronic infection
C. Acute or recent HBV infection
D. Vaccination-induced immunity
➡️ Answer: C. Acute or recent HBV infection
Saturday, 28 September 2013
Reverse Osmosis Water Treatment
Full Text: Click here
✅ Reverse Osmosis in Hemodialysis Water Treatment – MCQ Set 3
21. Which of the following best describes the “rejection rate” in an RO system?
A. The speed of water flow through the system
B. The temperature at which water is rejected
C. The percentage of contaminants removed from feed water
D. The percentage of product water sent to drain
➡️ Answer: C. The percentage of contaminants removed from feed water
22. Which one is NOT commonly monitored in dialysis RO water systems?
A. Conductivity
B. Temperature
C. Chlorine/chloramine
D. Hemoglobin
➡️ Answer: D. Hemoglobin
23. The RO system alarm sounds due to high conductivity. What is the immediate action?
A. Turn off the machine and continue dialysis
B. Continue dialysis and reset alarm
C. Stop dialysis water supply and investigate cause
D. Add salt manually to reduce conductivity
➡️ Answer: C. Stop dialysis water supply and investigate cause
24. AAMI recommends maximum conductivity for dialysis water to be:
A. 0.1 µS/cm
B. 0.5 µS/cm
C. 1.3 µS/cm
D. 3.0 µS/cm
➡️ Answer: C. 1.3 µS/cm
(Higher values may indicate membrane damage or chemical contamination.)
25. Which type of RO membrane is typically used in dialysis systems?
A. Cellulose acetate
B. Polysulfone
C. Thin-film composite (TFC)
D. Polycarbonate
➡️ Answer: C. Thin-film composite (TFC)
26. According to ISO 23500, the action level for endotoxins in RO product water is:
A. 0.25 EU/mL
B. 1.0 EU/mL
C. 2.0 EU/mL
D. 5.0 EU/mL
➡️ Answer: A. 0.25 EU/mL
27. What is the main hazard of chloramine breakthrough into dialysis water?
A. Fever
B. Hypertension
C. Hemolysis
D. Hypokalemia
➡️ Answer: C. Hemolysis
28. The purpose of a water softener in pre-treatment is to remove:
A. Chlorine and chloramine
B. Hard minerals like calcium and magnesium
C. Organic matter
D. Endotoxins
➡️ Answer: B. Hard minerals like calcium and magnesium
(To prevent RO membrane scaling.)
29. Which test is used to measure chlorine/chloramine levels in dialysis water?
A. Conductivity meter
B. DPD (diethyl-p-phenylenediamine) colorimetric test
C. Dipstick pH test
D. Hemoglobin analyzer
➡️ Answer: B. DPD colorimetric test
30. RO system rejection performance is typically measured by comparing:
A. Dialysate to drain water
B. Conductivity of RO water to chlorine content
C. Feed water TDS vs product water TDS
D. Endotoxin count vs temperature
➡️ Answer: C. Feed water TDS vs product water TDS
(TDS = Total Dissolved Solids)
31. What is the main risk if the water softener fails before the RO unit?
A. pH imbalance
B. Increased endotoxins
C. Scaling of the RO membrane
D. Increased conductivity of dialysate
➡️ Answer: C. Scaling of the RO membrane
(Due to calcium/magnesium salts not being removed.)
32. Which of the following organisms can form biofilms in the RO system if not properly disinfected?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Escherichia coli
D. Clostridium difficile
➡️ Answer: B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
33. AAMI maximum allowable aluminum concentration in product water is:
A. 0.01 mg/L
B. 0.1 mg/L
C. 0.2 mg/L
D. 0.5 mg/L
➡️ Answer: B. 0.01 mg/L
34. When conducting disinfection of an RO system, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Disinfectants can be used without system flushing
B. Disinfection should be done yearly
C. System must be flushed thoroughly to avoid patient exposure
D. RO membranes do not tolerate chemical disinfectants
➡️ Answer: C. System must be flushed thoroughly to avoid patient exposure
35. The RO system is found to have low permeate flow and increased rejection pressure. This most likely indicates:
A. UV lamp failure
B. Chloramine breakthrough
C. RO membrane fouling
D. High water temperature
➡️ Answer: C. RO membrane fouling
36. Which part of the water treatment system removes particles larger than 5 microns?
A. UV sterilizer
B. Carbon filter
C. Multimedia filter
D. RO membrane
➡️ Answer: C. Multimedia filter
37. Which of the following is NOT recommended as a backup for RO system failure?
A. Bottled sterile water
B. Secondary RO system
C. Ultrafilter bypass
D. Emergency water bypass system
➡️ Answer: C. Ultrafilter bypass
(Ultrafilters are for microbiological control, not a substitute for RO.)
38. What is the primary function of the ultrafilter placed after RO?
A. Remove chlorine
B. Reduce conductivity
C. Remove endotoxins and bacteria
D. Soften water
➡️ Answer: C. Remove endotoxins and bacteria
39. According to AAMI, how frequently should bacterial cultures be taken from dialysis water?
A. Daily
B. Weekly
C. Monthly
D. Annually
➡️ Answer: C. Monthly
(And after system changes, repairs, or contamination events.)
40. The RO reject water is typically:
A. Stored and reused in dialysate
B. Sent to drain
C. Used for disinfection
D. Used as dialysate in emergency
➡️ Answer: B. Sent to drain
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